Suppose a wave of investor and consumer pessimism in the USA causes a reduction in spending If the US federal Reserve (Which has a broader remit than the Bank of England Which is charged only with controlling inflation) chooses to engage in activist stabilization policy it should ?
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Suppose a wave of investor and consumer pessimism in the USA causes a reduction in spending If the US federal Reserve (Which has a broader remit than the Bank of England Which is charged only with controlling inflation) chooses to engage in activist stabilization policy it should decrease interest rates.